When does an inflationary shock not lead to permanent inflation?
Japan is subject to the same inflationary shocks as other OECD countries: Highly expansionary monetary policy; Highly expansionary fiscal policy; Shift in the structure of demand from services to goods since COVID, which led to the initial rise in commodity prices; Effects of the war in U kraine. Yet unlike other OECD countries, Japan has no inflation. Why does inflation in Japan react so differently to the same shocks as in other OECD countries? The explanations are probably: The very high level of corporate profitability, due to an income distribution structurally skewed against wage earners; The disappearance of inflation expectations, which contributes to the lack of reaction by prices and wages to the abovementioned shocks.